Free BCBA Mock Exam (2025): Full-Length Practice Test With Answer Keys and Rationales
- Jamie P
- Sep 3
- 9 min read
This is your practical, exam-style mock designed to mirror the decisions the real test expects: fast graph reading, clean IOA math, function-based intervention choices, ethical judgment, and design selection under constraints. You’ll get a full practice set (multi-domain, four-option multiple choice), plus answer keys with concise rationales and a post-exam review plan you can reuse weekly.
Aligned to 2025 coverage. This practice set is designed around the BCBA Test Content Outline (6th ed.), effective 2025, with emphasis on measurement, assessment, skill acquisition, behavior reduction, experimental design, and ethics/supervision.
How to Use This Mock (Read First)
Conditions: Sit once, timed. Aim ~90–110 seconds per item on average.
3-Pass method:
Pass 1: Answer what you know instantly; mark the rest.
Pass 2: Do the math/graphs and longer scenarios.
Pass 3: Decide on the stubborn few; don’t leave blanks.
Score & Diagnose: Use the error-log template in the review plan section.
Remediate: Turn misses into a one-page “law card” (definitions, formula/decision rule, tiny example), then retest.
Practice Exam
Format: 50 questions, 4 options each, 1 correct answer.
Domains covered: Measurement/Visual Analysis, Assessment → Intervention, Skill Acquisition, Behavior Reduction, Experimental Design, Ethics/Supervision.
Measurement & Visual Analysis (Q1–Q10)
Q1. Stereotypy occurs at highly variable rates across the school day. Which measurement system best captures rate changes while minimizing bias? A) Partial-interval B) Whole-interval C) Continuous event recording D) Momentary time sampling
Q2. Two observers recorded 42 and 48 instances in a session. Total Count IOA is: A) 78.5% B) 85.0% C) 87.5% D) 91.0%
Q3. You want a more stringent IOA than total count for variable responding. Best choice? A) Mean count-per-interval IOA B) Trial-by-trial IOA C) Total duration IOA only D) Scored-interval IOA only
Q4. A graph shows stable level with high variability and no clear trend after an intervention was added. Best next step? A) Discontinue intervention immediately B) Add a second intervention component without analysis C) Tighten treatment integrity and increase data density D) Phase change back to baseline regardless of risk
Q5. For a 10-minute session, RBT A recorded 120 responses; RBT B recorded 100. Rate for A is: A) 10/min B) 12/min C) 20/min D) 22/min
Q6. Partial-interval recording for a high-rate behavior tends to: A) Underestimate occurrence B) Overestimate occurrence C) Provide unbiased estimates D) Equal rate exactly
Q7. Which graph note is most decision-useful? A) “Beautiful upward lines.” B) “Increasing trend with moderate variability; consider schedule thinning after three consecutive points above criterion.” C) “Data look nice today.” D) “Colors are easy to read.”
Q8. You need to compare two interventions rapidly while controlling for sequence effects. Best design feature? A) Long baselines only B) Alternating-treatments with randomization C) AB design without repeats D) Post-hoc visual inspection only
Q9. Latency to compliance is targeted. Which measure matches the goal? A) Rate per minute B) Duration per occurrence C) Time from SD to response D) Percent opportunities
Q10. In interval-by-interval IOA for 20 intervals, 16 show agreement. IOA is: A) 60% B) 70% C) 75% D) 80%
Assessment → Function-Based Intervention (Q11–Q20)
Q11. Caregiver report suggests attention-maintained aggression. Which initial intervention best matches function? A) DRA to request attention + planned ignoring for aggression B) DRL on aggression frequency C) Punishment without assessment D) DRO only
Q12. Safety concerns make an FA impractical this week. Appropriate alternative? A) Proceed with full FA anyway B) Conduct descriptive assessment + structured hypothesis testing C) Drop assessment entirely D) Use punishment first, assess later
Q13. For a client with limited attending, the best preference assessment to start with is: A) MSWO B) Free-operant C) Single-stimulus (successive) D) Paired-stimulus
Q14. Data show escape-maintained task refusal. Which antecedent change helps most? A) Increase task difficulty without priming B) Intermix easy/hard tasks with high-p momentum C) Reduce all reinforcement D) Add unrelated visuals
Q15. When is FCT most appropriate? A) When behavior is automatically maintained only B) When a communicative response can access the maintaining reinforcer C) When extinction is impossible D) Only after several months of baseline
Q16. Hypothesis: behavior is tangible-maintained. Most aligned plan? A) DRA to request the item + extinction for problem behavior B) DRI with unrelated topography C) DRO of zero SIB for 30 minutes D) NCR attention only
Q17. You observe setting events (missed sleep) that spike responding. Best step? A) Ignore—setting events aren’t ABA B) Build proactive schedule changes + extra prompts on those days C) Only change consequence procedures D) Cancel sessions indefinitely
Q18. Which statement is best? A) “All attention functions require punishment.” B) “Function informs intervention selection.” C) “Topography alone determines treatment.” D) “High rates always mean automatic reinforcement.”
Q19. For low-frequency severe behavior, which measurement is most sensitive? A) Partial-interval B) Whole-interval C) Event recording with latency measures D) Planned activity checks
Q20. You need to verify if staff-delivered praise functions as a reinforcer. Do a(n): A) Contingency reversal only B) Reinforcer assessment C) Indirect survey only D) Preference assessment only
Skill Acquisition & Stimulus Control (Q21–Q30)
Q21. Teaching toothbrushing in steps suits: A) Noncontingent reinforcement B) Forward or backward chaining C) Changing criterion design exclusively D) DRO on errors
Q22. Prompt fading that minimizes prompt dependency: A) Add more powerful prompts over time B) Most-to-least or time delay C) Never fade prompts D) Random prompting
Q23. To transfer stimulus control, you should: A) Keep the prompt on indefinitely B) Systematically fade prompts to the SD C) Use NCR only D) Add extinction to correct responses
Q24. Multiple-exemplar training primarily promotes: A) Maintenance only B) Generalization C) Extinction D) Stimulus overselectivity
Q25. A client responds only to one therapist. Best fix? A) Terminate therapy B) Introduce common stimuli + practice across people and settings C) Raise criterion abruptly D) Switch to punishment
Q26. Shaping is best described as: A) Reinforcing successive approximations toward a terminal response B) Punishing errors until criterion emerges C) Using only physical prompts D) Interspersing easy tasks only
Q27. For high-rate appropriate behavior you’d like to thin, consider: A) DRH B) DRL C) DRA D) DRI
Q28. Best tactic to combat prompt dependency: A) Time delay or least-to-most with clear error correction rules B) Add more prompts C) Remove the SD D) Increase session length only
Q29. Teaching a new receptive ID across many exemplars mainly supports: A) Stimulus control and generalization B) Response class over-expansion C) Satiation D) Extinction bursts
Q30. For chaining handwashing, backward chaining helps because it: A) Starts with hardest step B) Starts with last step to contact terminal reinforcer quickly C) Removes reinforcement D) Eliminates task analysis
Behavior Reduction (Q31–Q38)
Q31. A common extinction side effect to plan for is: A) Rapid mastery B) Extinction burst C) Immediate generalization D) None
Q32. For attention-maintained SIB, adding planned ignoring means: A) Reinforce SIB briefly B) Withhold attention following SIB C) Remove tasks entirely D) Deliver tangible on SIB
Q33. DRI differs from DRA because it: A) Reinforces a behavior incompatible with the problem behavior B) Reinforces any other behavior C) Reduces reinforcement overall D) Requires punishment
Q34. For escape-maintained behavior during long tasks, helpful antecedent is: A) Eliminate reinforcement B) Task interspersal + breaks for appropriate requests C) Provide more attention only D) Increase pace without supports
Q35. Which is least intrusive effective when proven to work? A) FCT with extinction B) Timeout as first-line C) Overcorrection immediately D) Punishment without assessment
Q36. During treatment integrity checks you find drift. First step? A) Ignore it B) Re-train and model; schedule booster checks C) Switch treatments immediately D) Report to payer before acting
Q37. To maintain reductions over time, include: A) Reinforcement thinning + generalization probes B) Only baseline checks C) No follow-up D) Remove all supports quickly
Q38. When should you not use extinction? A) When function is unclear and risks are high B) When behavior is mild and attention-maintained C) When DRA is available D) When FCT is planned
Experimental Design (Q39–Q45)
Q39. Reversal provides strong control when: A) Behavior is irreversible B) Withdrawing treatment is unethical C) Behavior is reversible and withdrawal is safe D) Baseline cannot be obtained
Q40. Multiple baseline shines when: A) Skills are quickly reversible B) It’s unsafe/unethical to withdraw treatment C) Only one setting exists D) You have one day to collect data
Q41. Alternating-treatments helps compare: A) One treatment vs. baseline only B) Several treatments rapidly with counterbalancing C) Only long-term trends D) Only shaping procedures
Q42. Changing criterion demonstrates control by: A) Abrupt phase changes only B) Stepwise performance shifts that track changing goals C) Removing reinforcement D) Adding prompts
Q43. A threat in multielement designs is carryover/sequence. A mitigation is: A) Fix a strict alternation order B) Randomize sequence and include no-treatment probes C) Avoid baseline D) Graph weekly only
Q44. Nonconcurrent multiple baseline requires extra care with: A) Functional independence and phase staggering B) Only equal phase lengths C) Latency measures D) Inter-observer reliability exclusively
Q45. Strongest demonstration of experimental control across people typically uses: A) A-B design B) Non-replicated probes C) Multiple baseline across participants D) Post-hoc narratives
Ethics & Supervision (Q46–Q50)
Q46. Consent/assent is unclear. First action? A) Proceed; clarify later B) Clarify and document consent/assent before intervention C) Start punishment and notify family D) Collect data without informing caregivers
Q47. Case exceeds your scope of competence. Best step? A) Continue alone B) Obtain supervision/consult; refer if needed C) Decline ethics entirely D) Ignore until an audit
Q48. Dual-relationship risk appears in a small community. Safest path? A) Proceed and disclose after B) Evaluate risk, seek alternatives/consultation, document C) Refuse all services permanently D) Hide the relationship
Q49. Supervising RBTs ethically requires: A) Competency-based training, feedback, integrity monitoring, documented minutes B) Informal chats only C) Only video lectures D) Unscheduled pop-ins exclusively
Q50. Telehealth documentation should include at minimum: A) Device specs only B) Consent, privacy safeguards, locations, connectivity limitations, and contingency plans C) Only date/time D) Verbal assurances only
Decision-making in these items reflects the Ethics Code for Behavior Analysts (consent, competence, documentation, cultural responsiveness, privacy) which governs certificants and applicants.
Answer Key With Brief Rationales
Q1. C – Event recording tracks true rate; partial/whole interval bias high-rate data.
Q2. C – 42 ÷ 48 × 100 = 87.5%.
Q3. A – Mean count-per-interval is more stringent than total count when rates vary.
Q4. C – Verify integrity/measurement and add density before bigger changes.
Q5. B – 120 responses / 10 min = 12/min.
Q6. B – Partial-interval overestimates occurrence for high-rate behaviors.
Q7. B – Actionable analysis links trend/variability to a concrete next step.
Q8. B – Alternating-treatments with randomization addresses rapid comparison + sequence effects.
Q9. C – Latency = time from SD to response.
Q10. D – 16/20 = 80% interval-by-interval IOA.
Q11. A – DRA attention request + extinction for aggression matches function.
Q12. B – Use descriptive assessment + hypothesis testing when FA is unsafe; document.
Q13. C – Single-stimulus (successive) reduces attentional demands initially.
Q14. B – Intermix easy/hard + high-p momentum reduces escape behavior.
Q15. B – FCT works when a communication response can access the maintaining reinforcer.
Q16. A – DRA for tangible request + extinction for problem behavior.
Q17. B – Proactive adjustments for setting events + added prompts.
Q18. B – Function drives selection; topography alone is insufficient.
Q19. C – Event recording with latency is sensitive for low-frequency severe behavior.
Q20. B – Reinforcer assessment tests whether consequences function as reinforcers.
Q21. B – Task analysis + chaining fits multi-step self-care.
Q22. B – Most-to-least or time delay helps fade prompts cleanly.
Q23. B – Transfer stimulus control by fading prompts to the SD.
Q24. B – Multiple-exemplar promotes generalization.
Q25. B – Common stimuli + practice across people/settings expand control.
Q26. A – Shaping: reinforce successive approximations.
Q27. B – DRL reduces but maintains responding at lower rates.
Q28. A – Time delay/LTM with error-correction combats prompt dependence.
Q29. A – Multiple exemplars build robust stimulus control and generalization.
Q30. B – Backward chaining gives immediate contact with terminal reinforcer.
Q31. B – Plan for bursts; ensure safety and integrity.
Q32. B – Withhold attention following SIB (paired with DRA/FCT).
Q33. A – DRI reinforces incompatible alternatives.
Q34. B – Interspersal and breaks for appropriate requests address escape function.
Q35. A – Least intrusive effective options are prioritized.
Q36. B – Re-train/model; schedule integrity boosters; document.
Q37. A – Thinning + generalization probes sustain gains.
Q38. A – Avoid extinction when risks are high and function is unclear.
Q39. C – Reversal requires reversibility and ethical withdrawal.
Q40. B – Multiple baseline fits when withdrawal is unsafe/unethical.
Q41. B – Rapid treatment comparisons with counterbalancing.
Q42. B – Stepwise criteria demonstrate control via prediction/verification.
Q43. B – Randomization + no-treatment probes reduce carryover.
Q44. A – Ensure functional independence and stagger phases.
Q45. C – Multiple baseline across participants demonstrates control across people.
Q46. B – Clarify/document consent/assent first.
Q47. B – Obtain supervision/consult; refer if needed.
Q48. B – Evaluate, seek alternatives/consultation, document.
Q49. A – Ethical supervision = competency-based training, feedback, integrity monitoring, documentation.
Q50. B – Telehealth notes: consent, privacy, locations, limits, contingencies; keep audit-ready.
Note: While your actual BCBA exam uses a proprietary item pool and standardized psychometrics, its coverage follows the 6th-edition outline and is multiple-choice with a single best answer per item. Use mocks to build pacing and decision fluency—not to memorize items.
Scoring & Interpreting Your Results
Raw score: # correct ÷ 50.
Below target in a domain? Don’t “do everything.” Instead, build a clustered fix:
Write one decision tree (e.g., DRO vs. DRL vs. DRA).
Create one law card (formula/definition/decision rule + 1 example).
Run a 20–30 item targeted retest; aim ≥85% before moving on.
Post-Exam Review Plan
Log every miss with root cause tags: knowledge, misread stem, math slip, distractor trap.
Create or update one law card and one drill per cluster of errors.
Schedule spaced reviews (1–3–7 days) for those cards.
Next session: do a timed mini-set (15–20 items) focused on yesterday’s misses.
Weekly: 40–60-item mini-mock + 30-minute retro on root causes.
Upgrade Drills You Can Run in 10–15 Minutes
IOA Micro-Circuit
4 total count IOA items
3 mean count-per-interval items
3 trial-by-trial or interval-by-interval items
2 “which IOA is most stringent here and why?” prompts
Graph Sprints
In 30 seconds per graph, state level, trend, variability and your next decision, then write a decision rule you’ll apply for the next three data points.
Ethics Triages
Write a 5-line vignette (consent/assent, scope, privacy). Decide the safest effective step, justify with a one-line ethics reference, and list what you’ll document. (Anchored to the current Ethics Code for Behavior Analysts.)
FAQ
How many full mocks do I need?
Two full-length sessions in your final 2–3 weeks is plenty if you’re doing targeted review in between.
Do I need to memorize every ethics clause?
Know the structure and how to apply it: consent/assent, competence, documentation/privacy, conflicts. Practice quick triage and clear documentation.
What trips people up most
Untimed sets (false confidence), skipping error-logs, and avoiding graphs/IOA. Fix those, and scores climb.
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